LogFAQs > #877061245

LurkerFAQs, Active DB, Database 1 ( 03.09.2017-09.16.2017 ), DB2, DB3, DB4, DB5, DB6, DB7, DB8, DB9, DB10, DB11, DB12, Clear

Topic List	Page List: 1
Topic	If x^(-1) is 1/x, then why is sin^(-1)x equal to arcsinx and not 1/sinx?
organicbamf 04/12/17 2:43:53 PM #7:	RedWhiteBlue posted... Also tc you might be thinking of (Sin(X))^-1 and not Sin(x^-1) tc asked a legit question in your example, the first would be 1/(sin(x)), the second would be sin(1/x) --- get ready for a backside attack ;) <cite>organicbamf posted [p:877061245] in If x^(-1) ... [t:75229679]...</cite> <quote><cite>RedWhiteBlue posted...</cite> <quote>Also tc you might be thinking of (Sin(X))^-1 and not Sin(x^-1)</quote> tc asked a legit question in your example, the first would be 1/(sin(x)), the second would be sin(1/x) --- get ready for a backside attack ;)</quote> ... Copied to Clipboard!
Topic List	Page List: 1