Current Events > If x^(-1) is 1/x, then why is sin^(-1)x equal to arcsinx and not 1/sinx?

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Metua
04/12/17 2:33:34 PM
#1:


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Paragon21XX
04/12/17 2:35:42 PM
#2:


Because 0.999~=1
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organicbamf
04/12/17 2:38:47 PM
#4:


it's a notation convention, that's it

look up feynman's trigonometric notation when he was in high school or college or something. he abandoned it, but i wish it stuck

Paragon21XX posted...
Because 0.999~=1


RedWhiteBlue posted...
Paragon21XX posted...
Because 0.999~=1

A decimal can't equal an integer


oh you two
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organicbamf
04/12/17 2:43:53 PM
#7:


RedWhiteBlue posted...
Also tc you might be thinking of (Sin(X))^-1 and not Sin(x^-1)


tc asked a legit question

in your example, the first would be 1/(sin(x)), the second would be sin(1/x)
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