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TopicIf x^(-1) is 1/x, then why is sin^(-1)x equal to arcsinx and not 1/sinx?
organicbamf
04/12/17 2:38:47 PM
#4:


it's a notation convention, that's it

look up feynman's trigonometric notation when he was in high school or college or something. he abandoned it, but i wish it stuck

Paragon21XX posted...
Because 0.999~=1


RedWhiteBlue posted...
Paragon21XX posted...
Because 0.999~=1

A decimal can't equal an integer


oh you two
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get ready for a backside attack ;)
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