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Topic | If x^(-1) is 1/x, then why is sin^(-1)x equal to arcsinx and not 1/sinx? |
organicbamf 04/12/17 2:38:47 PM #4: | it's a notation convention, that's it look up feynman's trigonometric notation when he was in high school or college or something. he abandoned it, but i wish it stuck Paragon21XX posted... Because 0.999~=1 RedWhiteBlue posted... Paragon21XX posted...Because 0.999~=1 oh you two --- get ready for a backside attack ;) ... Copied to Clipboard! |
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