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If x^(-1) is 1/x, then why is sin^(-1)x equal to arcsinx and not 1/sinx?
Metua
04/12/17 2:33:34 PM
#1
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Quote
(+) Yeah! (+)
Checkmate mathematicians
---
http://i.imgur.com/yKMR7.png
http://i.imgur.com/WWCd7FL.gif
Metua posted [p:877060544] in If x^(-1) ... [t:75229679]...
Checkmate mathematicians --- http://i.imgur.com/yKMR7.png http://i.imgur.com/WWCd7FL.gif
... Copied to Clipboard!
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