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| Topic | How do you refute the historical evidence for the Resurrection of Jesus |
| darkphoenix181 05/01/17 1:18:24 PM #176: | DawkinsNumber4 posted... darkphoenix181 posted...Pilate was only brought into the equation because of the special circumstances surrounding Jesus https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/5558/in-the-time-of-jesus-were-the-jewish-authorities-allowed-to-execute The court lost the right to declare executions right about the time of Jesus. You can call the coincidence or convenience, but how interesting. And it might be that they gained it back shortly after Jesus seeing how they are found stoning Stephen to death only a year or so later. Or it could be that as said here they still had the right to stone people for blasphemy as such was their law but needed approval via the Roman prefect. Infact the very verse you quote shows that Pilate would have had no issue in this matter seeing how he said to them, "You take Him and judge Him by your own Law,” but they were intent on crucifixion likely because it was a much worse way to die than stoning. It might also be that they could not kill a person on passover, not sure about this however. On the sabbath I believe they couldn't since they couldn't work. Passover is a little bit special. So all it would take to make the prophecy not come true would have been for them to decide to kill him when it was not passover. They could have waited a few more days and Pilate said "go ahead" and then stoned him(few more because of sabbath interfering) . But this didn't happen, how interesting. --- sigless user is me or am I? ... Copied to Clipboard! |
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