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TopicIs 'morality' subjective or objective?
videospirit
05/30/23 2:36:32 AM
#262:


The_Apologist posted...
It's still possible, though.
At some point a probability gets to be so low that it is in fact, not possible. In the span of a googolplex of universes cycle of birth to heat death the event will have occurred on average 0 times total across the sum experience of any of those universes. Long before that point it's pure fantasy.

But the solipsist can certainly do better than this; they can say that the 'laws of nature' are actually just laws governing how the solipsistic mind works. And then the regularity of experience isn't an astronomical coincidence anymore. You can ask why the solipsistic mind should operate according to regular laws, but then again we can also ask that about the physical universe.


And "Rules of how a mind works" once again gets us back to the difference between dreaming experience and waking experience. We know that our minds can work outside of the parameters of waking experience because we do it when we dream, the sheer fact we can both experience consistent observations and inconsistent observations sends you back into the realm of consistent observations are extremely improbable if they are not forced to be consistent by some external objective reality. When the laws of the solipsistic mind cease being consistent laws they lose their ability to explain phenomenon. Since we can't use a theoretical law of a solipsistic mind to explain the consistency of waking experience, there has to be some other explanation.

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Is there any other time in a modern democracy where large numbers of citizens complained that their government wasn't enough like a tyrannical dictatorship?
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