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TopicIs 'morality' subjective or objective?
videospirit
05/30/23 1:54:35 AM
#257:


The_Apologist posted...
I don't see how. The difference is compatible with solipsism--as is all possible experience.
Because the differences between dreaming experience and waking experience can only occur if an objective reality exists and is interacting with us. No matter how much we don't believe something that is part of objective reality exists, it still interferes with our observations in a consistent manner. Our dreaming experience shows us that things that lack a form in objective reality are impermanent and have no ability to consistently affect our observations.

But this is assuming that we're in contact with objective reality in the first place. It's possible that we aren't. (But I'm not trying to contend that we aren't, to be clear.)

And being in contact with objective reality is what causes the phenomenon that allow us to differentiate between waking experience and dreaming experience. The differences between waking experience and dreaming experience both prove that objective reality exists and prove that we're in contact with it at the same time.

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Is there any other time in a modern democracy where large numbers of citizens complained that their government wasn't enough like a tyrannical dictatorship?
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