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Topic	Should the mothers of children with FAS or NAS face some sort of punishment?
SKARDAVNELNATE 06/23/21 8:30:27 PM #28:	Reigning_King posted... walking around in a public place. Legal normaly but not so when drunk. I don't agree with this law. If someone is just walking around not bothering anyone then it shouldn't matter if they are also intoxicated. One aspect of requiring a license to drive was that the individual had to agree to refrain from intoxication while doing it beforehand. Thus the infraction even if there has been no harm. There is no prior agreement to refrain required in regard to either walking around or pregnancy. These are not equivalent analogies. Reigning_King posted... It isn't that complicated. Okay, yeah... the name just wasn't helping make that connection. Reigning_King posted... That's a non answer to my first question but I take it that it's pretty much a yes? You didn't ask a yes or no question. You asked for when. To which I answered when they are granted rights. Reigning_King posted... Also the laws on abortion in the US make a clear distinction between when a fetus is "viable" or not. Think about how this reflects on the substance abuse argument. Would it be fine for the mother to use during the fist 2 trimesters but it becomes illegal only once the fetus is "viable"? You were arguing from the potential harm position earlier. Isn't more harm done earlier in development? Reigning_King posted... My point is that clearly as shown by the way the law is constructed and basic common sense the "personhood" of a fetus is a gradual thing and not a binary. So more harm early is acceptable on the basis that they were less of a person when the harm occurred. This is the same as what I argued. Harm is acceptable because they had not been granted rights which protect them from it. --- No locked doors, no windows barred. No more things to make my brain seem SKARD. Look at Mr. Technical over here >.> -BTB <cite>SKARDAVNELNATE posted [p:955363520] in Should the... [t:79528441]...</cite> <quote>Reigning_King posted... </cite> <quote>walking around in a public place. Legal normaly but not so when drunk.</quote>I don't agree with this law. If someone is just walking around not bothering anyone then it shouldn't matter if they are also intoxicated. One aspect of requiring a license to drive was that the individual had to agree to refrain from intoxication while doing it beforehand. Thus the infraction even if there has been no harm. There is no prior agreement to refrain required in regard to either walking around or pregnancy. These are not equivalent analogies. Reigning_King posted... </cite> <quote>It isn't that complicated.</quote>Okay, yeah... the name just wasn't helping make that connection. Reigning_King posted... </cite> <quote>That's a non answer to my first question but I take it that it's pretty much a yes?</quote>You didn't ask a yes or no question. You asked for when. To which I answered when they are granted rights. Reigning_King posted... </cite> <quote>Also the laws on abortion in the US make a clear distinction between when a fetus is "viable" or not.</quote>Think about how this reflects on the substance abuse argument. Would it be fine for the mother to use during the fist 2 trimesters but it becomes illegal only once the fetus is "viable"? You were arguing from the potential harm position earlier. Isn't more harm done earlier in development? Reigning_King posted... </cite> <quote>My point is that clearly as shown by the way the law is constructed and basic common sense the "personhood" of a fetus is a gradual thing and not a binary.</quote>So more harm early is acceptable on the basis that they were less of a person when the harm occurred. This is the same as what I argued. Harm is acceptable because they had not been granted rights which protect them from it. --- No locked doors, no windows barred. No more things to make my brain seem SKARD. Look at Mr. Technical over here >.> -BTB</quote> ... Copied to Clipboard!
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