LogFAQs > #876840736

LurkerFAQs, Active DB, Database 1 ( 03.09.2017-09.16.2017 ), DB2, DB3, DB4, DB5, DB6, DB7, DB8, DB9, DB10, DB11, DB12, Clear

Topic List	Page List: 1
Topic	Why was Germany allowed to exist after the world wars?
Funkdamental 04/09/17 5:22:53 AM #14:	monkmith posted... after WW1 the winning europeans took a large chunk of their country... The only areas of Germany permanently "taken" by "the winning Europeans" were, to the best of my recollection, Eupen and Malmédy (which went to Belgium) and Alsace-Lorraine (to France). The Saar Basin? Administered by the UK and France under a League of Nations mandate but returned to Germany after a plebiscite in 1935. The Rhineland? Under an Allied occupation which ended in 1930. Germany's other territorial losses in its ethnically mixed borderlands -- northern Schleswig to Denmark, part of Upper Silesia and Pomerelia to Poland, Memel to Lithuania -- were not to "the winning Europeans". --- /propaganda <cite>Funkdamental posted [p:876840736] in Why was Ge... [t:75214782]...</cite> <quote><cite>monkmith posted...</cite> <quote>after WW1 the winning europeans took a large chunk of their country... </quote> The only areas of Germany permanently "taken" by "the winning Europeans" were, to the best of my recollection, Eupen and Malmédy (which went to Belgium) and Alsace-Lorraine (to France). The Saar Basin? Administered by the UK and France under a League of Nations mandate but returned to Germany after a plebiscite in 1935. The Rhineland? Under an Allied occupation which ended in 1930. Germany's other territorial losses in its ethnically mixed borderlands -- northern Schleswig to Denmark, part of Upper Silesia and Pomerelia to Poland, Memel to Lithuania -- were not to "the winning Europeans". --- /propaganda</quote> ... Copied to Clipboard!
Topic List	Page List: 1