LogFAQs > #906098451

SmartMuffin posted...

I'm saying that they wouldn't be motivated by politics.

Once again though, disparate impact is legal precedent in the US.

If you create an employment test that dramatically favors whites over blacks, the test is considered to be de facto racial discrimination, regardless of whether you intended it to be so or not.

Sorry I did not realize you were referencing a specifically defined legal precedent when you first used the phrase (which is my fault moreso than yours--i am trying to make these posts during small breaks at work)

So you're saying that lack of political neutrality is necessarily political discrimination, by definition ? Philosophically that is not a statement I agree with but legally speaking it seems you might be correct based on an initial glance.

There are various reasons why I think it makes sense to apply the resulting legal policies to things like race in employment but not to political affiliation in social media websites, but at this point we're entering into a separate discussion, I think. (Also to clarify I would not call it "discrimination" in either case, or would perhaps give some label like "unintentional discrimination" in both cases)
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