LogFAQs > #888112090

Balrog0 posted...

hitler privatized previously state run industries, though

Turning over a handful of public services to private industries doesn't change how they controlled the production of "private" businesses in Nazi Germany as well as controlled prices of their products and the wages of all employees

https://www.mises.org/library/why-nazism-was-socialism-and-why-socialism-totalitarian

The basis of the claim that Nazi Germany was capitalist was the fact that most industries in Nazi Germany appeared to be left in private hands.

What Mises identified was that private ownership of the means of production existed in name only under the Nazis and that the actual substance of ownership of the means of production resided in the German government. For it was the German government and not the nominal private owners that exercised all of the substantive powers of ownership: it, not the nominal private owners, decided what was to be produced, in what quantity, by what methods, and to whom it was to be distributed, as well as what prices would be charged and what wages would be paid, and what dividends or other income the nominal private owners would be permitted to receive. The position of the alleged private owners, Mises showed, was reduced essentially to that of government pensioners.

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